We publish for you sample ADR tests which participants may encounter. ADR test is a one-choice test, so you only need to mark one answer out of the three suggested.
The following ADR examinations shall be carried out:
- basic course - 60 minutes in duration and the participant must answer 30 questions of which 20 must be answered correctly
- specialised course in the carriage of dangerous goods by road in tankers - this course takes 40 minutes and the participant must answer 18 questions of which 12 must be answered correctly
- Specialised course in the carriage of dangerous goods by road of Class 1 - explosives and explosive articles - lasting 30 minutes and the participant must answer 15 questions of which 10 correct answers are required to pass
- specialist course in the carriage of dangerous goods by road of Class 7 - radioactive material - 30 minutes' duration and the participant must answer 15 questions of which 10 correct answers are required to pass
We have prepared ADR tests for you for the basic course and all three types of specialist courses. These are sample questions, but they will give you an idea of the specifics of the test. We recommend that you practice the ADR tests before you take the exam. During our courses, you will learn everything you need to know about carrying ADR goods. You are welcome!
Questions to be used for the ADR dangerous goods examination.
1. in ADR Class 7 are:
(a) radioactive material,
(b) corrosive materials,
(c) infectious materials.
2. the choice of packaging is the responsibility of:
(b) the producer, shipper of the dangerous good,
(c) Freight Forwarder.
(3) Exemption from the application of ADR provisions under regulation 18.104.22.168. (without tables), allows:
(a) exemption of the driver and the vehicle from certain requirements of the ADR provisions,
(b) permits the carriage of dangerous goods in tanks,
(c) non-compliance with ADR provisions.
4. management of thermal burns
(a) cool thermal burns by running water for about 15 minutes, giving the victim warm drinks,
(b) spread butter on the burned areas,
(c) apply disinfection with salicylic acid.
5. dangerous goods according to the ADR are:
(a) any unpackaged cargo,
(b) a substance classified in one of 13 hazard classes,
(c) any goods carried in a tank.
6. transport is not allowed in the tunnel:
(a) Class 7 materials,
(b) hazardous materials transported in tanks,
(c) no load when the driver has identified a failure of the vehicle braking system.
(7) The class of dangerous goods shall include:
(a) materials with different levels of hazard,
(b) only chemically pure materials,
(c) only materials that are neither suffocating nor flammable.
8. in ADR Class 4.3 are:
(a) materials which, in contact with water, emit flammable gases,
(b) flammable liquids,
(c) infectious materials.
9. If an emergency occurs, which of the following documents are important for the rescue operation?
(a) an ADR certificate,
(b) Driving licence and ADR training certificate,
(c) the transport document.
10. What rules should be followed when putting out a fire?
(a) if the engine is on fire, powder extinguishers should not be used as the powder injected may react with the diesel,
(b) if the engine is on fire, inject powder e.g. through holes in the dummy or under the cab,
c) .if a tyre is on fire stop immediately.
11. written instructions:
a) contain information concerning the route and rest stops that should be made during the carriage,
(b) are only required for the carriage of dangerous goods and shall be written in a language understood by the driver,
(c) always include the trade name of the substance and the weight of the cargo in kg.
12 High risk dangerous goods are:
(a) infectious materials transported in tanks,
(b) all materials in Class 6.1 of Packing Group I,
(c) certain materials of Class 9.
13. In tunnels it is prohibited to:
(a) to conduct interviews,
(b) use of a mobile phone,
(c) listening to the radio.
14 The consignee of dangerous goods is responsible for:
(a) to inform the emergency services if they discover damage to the consignment that affects safety,
(b) providing the driver with written instructions concerning the goods to be carried,
(c) the content of the written instructions to the driver.
15. what is the predominant hazard of dangerous goods of class 2 (common to all goods of the same class)?
(a), the possibility of rupture of the cylinder due to internal pressure,
(b) the formation of low temperatures by the expansion of gases,
(c) possibility of explosion of gas/air mixture.
16. the packaging of dangerous goods should:
(a) be made exclusively of non-combustible material,
(b) have a handle for mechanical handling,
(c) prevent the contents from escaping under normal conditions of carriage.
17. What is the purpose of ADR legislation?
(a) the release of dangerous goods for transport under specified safety conditions,
(b) the conditions under which dangerous goods are transported by all modes of transport,
(c) harmonisation of environmental protection provisions (fauna and flora).
18 Written instructions to the driver should:
(a) be read by the driver only if there is an accident, i.e. at the last minute,
(b) be confirmed by the Fire Brigade,
(c) indicate the personal protective equipment to be used in the event of a release of material.
19. the symbol "X" in the packaging code indicates that:
(a) it may be used for materials in packaging group I or III in the respective classes,
(b) the packaging is intended for liquid materials only,
(c) it is intended for materials reacting dangerously with water.
20. what should a driver do if the required markings on items of consignment are missing?
(a) carry out the carriage if the representative of the consignor takes part in the carriage as escort,
(b) ask for it to be completed,
(c) start the transport in the hope that the vehicle will not be inspected,
21. a transport unit with a permissible gross laden weight (DMC) of more than 7.5 tonnes shall be fitted with fire extinguishers
(a) with a total content of 12 kg,
(b) with a total content of 10 kg,
(c) a total of 12 kg, at least one of which should be less than 2 kg.
22. To improve safety, the driver should:
(a) weigh the loaded vehicle and if it is only overloaded by 5 % continue driving,
(b) group shipments by hazard,
(c) remove safety guards from tie-down straps.
23 Written instructions to the driver for the collection of cargo abroad:
(a) be written in the language of the sender only,
(b) are not required if the cargo is destined for Iraq,
(c) they must also be provided in a language understood by the driver.
24. what precautions should a driver take when loading a carriage of Class 4.3 materials?
(a) use only an open vehicle (without sheets),
(b) direct the hot air flow from the combustion heater onto the load to prevent moisture build-up,
(c) perform loading operations avoiding contact with water.
(25) The carriage of dangerous goods in units of consignment shall mean:
(a) the carriage of large equipment or hazardous goods without packaging,
(b) carriage by tanker,
(c) carriage in tank-containers.
26. fire extinguishers on the vehicle:
(a) should be refilled after each use even if they are partly full,
(b) shall be secured one on the vehicle and one on the trailer,
(c) they must be serviced at least every 7 years.
27. Which of the following hazards of goods of Class 4.1 are considered to be the most important?
(b) corrosive properties,
28 Partial exemption from the provisions of Annex B to the ADR, provided that certain quantitative limits per transport unit are respected:
(a) transport operations of a rescue nature,
(b) transported in approved and labelled packages,
(c) the carriage of appliances not mentioned in the list of goods but containing dangerous materials (e.g. refrigerators containing refrigerant gas).
(29) The carriage of dangerous goods in bulk shall mean:
(a) the transport of objects (e.g. waste batteries) in plastic containers of adequate resistance,
(b) the carriage of unstamped packages,
(c) carriage by tank-container.
30. what is meant by multimodal (combined) transport?
(a) carriage of goods by means of at least two motor vehicles,
(b) carriage of different loads to several recipients,
(c) carriage of goods by at least two different modes of transport (e.g. rail and road).
Specialist course - tankers
1. battery master switch:
(a) be fitted to every vehicle of type "EX/III" or "FL",
(b) be fitted to every 'EX/II' type vehicle,
(c) be fitted to every OX vehicle.
(2) Indicate the materials that must not be transported in tankers:
(a) UN 1203,
(b) UN 0113,
(c) UN 3257.
3. Who is responsible for the correct preparation of the written instructions for the driver?
(a) tank driver,
(b) the producer or shipper of the hazardous material,
(c) freight forwarder.
4. what can the driver of a tank vehicle do to reduce the effects of ripples in the tank?
(a) Drive to a cool place at temperatures above 25°C,
(b) not to apply specific safeguards,
(c) gently reduce speed before bends or intersections.
5. the powder extinguishers with which the tanker is equipped:
(a) may not be used if they are not labelled in accordance with a standard recognised by the competent authority and do not have an expiry date,
(b) need not be checked by the driver before each departure,
(c) may not be used if not labelled in accordance with the Polish Standard.
6. Who is responsible for providing the driver with written instructions before starting to fill the tanker?
(a) the nearest fire station,
(b) the sender,
(c) the Organic Industry Institute.
7. For what purpose are safety devices used when filling a tanker?
(a) to enable noise-free filling,
(b) to allow bubble-free filling of the tank,
(c) to prevent overfilling of the tank.
According to the ADR, the fire extinguisher on the tanker shall be fitted with:
(a) the list of extinguishing materials for which it is intended,
(b) the date of sale,
(c) an indication of the date of the next inspection.
9. Which vehicles are required under the ADR agreement to have a vehicle certificate for the carriage of certain dangerous goods?
(a) only those with a gross vehicle weight of more than 7,5 tonnes,
(b) all fixed tanks that transport dangerous goods,
(c) only those whose gross vehicle weight does not exceed 3.5 tonnes.
10. When should a "gas pendulum" (closed loop filling) be used?
(a) only for refuelling of Class 3 goods of Packing Group I,
(b) where it is required to prevent vapours escaping when the tank is full,
(c) for all flammable liquids.
11. what is the purpose of the breather mounted on the liquid phase drain valves of tankers carrying liquefied gases (e.g. liquefied propane-butane mixtures)?
(a) to determine when loading of the tanker should be completed,
(b) to determine when the unloading of the tanker should be completed,
(c) it serves to relieve the pressure prevailing under the threaded blanking plug by preventing the plug from "popping".
12. What must a driver who empties a Class 2 flammable tanker be aware of?
(a) the driver emptying the tanker must check the tanker's fill level,
(b) the driver emptying the tank must monitor the temperature inside the tank,
(c) an overpressure (pressure higher than atmospheric pressure) shall be left in the emptied tank.
13 A customer's liquefied petroleum gas (propane) tank was accidentally overfilled. What should the tanker driver do?
(a) ask the customer to switch on the collection system to drain excess gas from the tank,
(b) notify the fire brigade,
(c) Pump off the excess liquefied gas.
14. when should the "gas pendulum" (closed loop handling) be used?
(a) for tankers that do not have the possibility of controlling the degree of filling,
(b) during the filling and emptying of tanks with materials whose vapours cannot escape from the filling tank for environmental reasons,
(c) when two products are mixed.
15. How will a vehicle driver recognise the suitability of a tanker for the carriage of liquefied gases?
(a) by the dimensions of the tank,
(b) the second letter of the tank code, if the tank has a code,
(c) the first letter of the tank code, if the tank has a code.
What are the essential equipment of tank-containers for the transport of liquefied flammable gases?
(a) the installation (specific components) for its earthing during loading and unloading,
(b) safety valve without preceding safety plate,
(c) safety valve with preceding safety plate for poisonous gases.
17. the pump for pumping liquefied gases is leaking. Fog formation prevents visibility in the control cabinet. What needs to be done urgently?
(a) Blow through the haze to locate the leak,
(b) close the internal gas supply isolation valve to the pump and simultaneously switch off the pump,
(c) accelerate the handling to reduce leakage.
18. What safety equipment is included in gas tankers and tank containers?
(a) battery casing,
(b) a manhole cover,
(c) a system comprising a pressure relief valve, a pressure relief plate and a test gauge.
Specialist course - Class 7
1. which of the following statements are true?
(a) the least penetrable radiation is gamma radiation,
(b) alpha, beta and gamma rays have the same penetration,
(c) gamma radiation is more penetrating than beta radiation.
(2) Which of the following definitions correspond to the term 'radioactive contamination'?
(a) contamination caused by radioactive material,
(b) the radiation dose absorbed by the body,
(c) the dose rate on the surface of the consignment.
3. how many persons, other than the vehicle crew, may be carried in a vehicle carrying radioactive material?
(a) a maximum of 2 persons when consignments marked with No 7 B stickers are carried,
(b) none if there are items of consignment marked with No 7 B stickers on the vehicle,
(c) a maximum of 1 person if consignments marked with the No 7C and No 7 E stickers are carried.
4. what inscriptions or marks should be placed on type B (U) packages containing radioactive material?
(a) amber-coloured plates with the material and hazard identification number and an appropriate radiant warning sticker,
(b) the material identification number preceded by the letters "UN" and the correct shipping name.
(c) orange coloured plates.
5. which of the following definitions correspond to the term 'radioactive contamination'?
(a) the radiation level at the surface of the consignment,
(b) the presence of a radioactive substance on the skin of a human being,
(c) the radiation emitted by the radioactive material in the package.
6. How can people perceive radioactivity (without measuring instruments)?
(b) by the faint crackling caused by the movement of particles colliding with the interior of the packaging,
(c) have no senses to perceive radioactivity.
7. labelling of packages containing radioactive material:
(a) consist of special stickers - round and hexagonal, red in colour,
(b) should be placed by the driver,
(c) specify the maximum number of items that can be loaded on one vehicle.
8. radioactive material:
(a) it always emits ionising radiation,
(b) emits radiation only when it comes into contact with air,
(c) ceases to be radioactive if it ignites.
9. what inscriptions or marks should be on type A packages containing radioactive material.
(a) it is not necessary to mark consignments as the marking of vehicles is sufficient,
(b) warning labels, depending on the category of the consignment,
(c) orange coloured plates.
10. what is meant by the term 'radioactive'?
(a) light intensity from gammagraphic instruments (isotope defectoscopes),
(b) the unit used to determine the power of a radio transmitter,
(c) the term identifies a substance that is capable of transforming itself into another.
11. Where should the 7B sticker be placed?
(a) on two opposite sides of the consignment,
(b) on one of the sides of the consignment,
(c) on two opposite sides of a large container.
What information is given on sticker 7C (category III - YELLOW)?
(a) the dimensions of the package,
(b) the maximum authorised volume of the consignment,
(c) the transport indicator.
13. what is meant by the term 'radioactive content'?
(a) external radiation emitted by radioactive substances,
(b) the part of the package that comes into contact with radioactive substances,
(c) the radioactive material in the package.
14. What are the risks associated with human radiation?
(a) changes in the cells of the human body,
(b) the contaminated part of the body may be affected by haemorrhaging,
(c) blood poisoning.
15. which of the following terms refer to absorbed radiation?
(b) the type of radioactive isotope,
(c) the dose.
Specialised course - Class 1
1. before loading, how can the driver check that the explosives have been properly packed?
(a) shall verify that each package is accompanied by a certificate of approval,
(b) it should verify that the certification mark is applied to each item of the consignment,
(c) he should check that the wrappings inside the outer packaging are tightly closed.
2. when transporting consignments with 1, 1.4, 1.5, and 1.6 stickers, which stickers should be affixed to the vehicle?
(a) only sticker 1,
(b) only stickers 1 and 1.4,
(c) only stickers 1.4, 1.5 or 1.6.
(3) In accordance with regulation 22.214.171.124, explosives and explosive articles may be carried in limited quantities in the same vehicle which:
(a) which depend on the item number of the bill of materials,
(b) which are known and observed by the sender,
(c) depend on the subclass to which they belong.
(4) If the vehicle is carrying explosives presenting in addition a danger of poisonous or corrosive effects, or both, it shall have:
(a) in addition stickers No 6.1, and 8,
(b) only sticker No 6.1,
(c) only sticker No 8.
5. with which Class 1 materials should consignments be provided with three warning stickers?
(a) with poisonous explosives,
(b) with corrosive explosives,
(c) with poisonous and corrosive explosives.
6. Why is impact or friction dangerous for explosives?
(a) because their mechanical energy converted into heat can initiate an explosion,
(b) because poisonous vapours are always emitted,
(c) because they have a corrosive effect on the packaging material in which they are contained.
7. what is indicated on the warning stickers affixed to consignments of Class 1 material?
(a) in some cases, such as sticker No 1 , in the lower part the classification code,
(b) in some cases, for example, a sticker with the letter N on the lower part indicating the conformity group,
(c) all stickers have only a subclass number.
8 The carriage of explosives and explosive articles in bulk is:
(a) absolutely prohibited,
(b) only allowed with EX/III compliant vehicles,
(c) authorised provided the driver is over 21 years of age.
9. What ADR accessories are required on the vehicle?
(a) a shovel and a broom,
(b) protective equipment for the driver, two torches and two reflective waistcoats,
(c) suitable absorbent materials.
Type EX/III vehicles shall:
(a) be closed units only,
(b) be fitted with a flame-retardant sheet overlapping the sides by at least 20 cm,
(c) have the same structural elements (engine, exhaust system, fuel tank) as the EX/II vehicles.
11. Which of the following statements about the place of loading and unloading are true?
(a) the loading and unloading of explosives in public places and in built-up areas without the permission of the competent authority shall be prohibited,
(b) the loading and unloading of explosives in public places shall be prohibited unless the competent authority has ensured the involvement of the emergency services,
(c) the loading and unloading of explosives in a built-up area is prohibited if the competent authority has been informed.
12. it is the driver's responsibility to check the consignments:
(a) whether the consignments are split into solid and liquid materials,
(b) that all packages have stickers with handling marks,
(c) that they bear the name of the material as given in the transport document.
13 Warning stickers should be affixed to consignments of explosives:
(a) the sender,
(b) the driver,
(c) the technologist who manufactured the material.
14 The written instructions to the driver carrying Class 1 material should provide the following practical information:
(a) description of the rescue operations to be carried out by the chemical emergency services,
(b) indications for giving first aid to a person injured in an accident,
(c) indications as to which documents should be filled in by the driver after the accident.
15. How can explosives and objects be transported?
(a) in units,
(b) if they are in liquid state, they may be transported in small tanks,
(c) in consignments and in bulk.